11-21-2015, 12:18 AM
I heard this statement and I would like to check whether it is correct or not.
If one learns to read in one language (i.e. Chinese), they can also read other Asian languages (i.e. Korean and Japanese). The words may be different, but the writing is the same.
Is this correct or not?
EDIT: if this is correct, are there other languages where they use the same type of writing?
If one learns to read in one language (i.e. Chinese), they can also read other Asian languages (i.e. Korean and Japanese). The words may be different, but the writing is the same.
Is this correct or not?
EDIT: if this is correct, are there other languages where they use the same type of writing?